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Free Security+ practice test 2026: 20 questions without signup

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5 domains 2398 questions 90 min exam
Questions on the exam
90
Time allowed
90 minutes format →
Passing score
750 of 900 — vendor, checked September 4, 2026 detail →
Exam fee
$425 — vendor, checked September 5, 2026 detail →

2398 practice test questions for CompTIA Security+, grouped by exam domain. Every question below shows all four options, which one is correct, and why each of the other three is not — the wrong answers are where most candidates lose marks.

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Questions by domain

Sample questions

Document tested secure settings for supported systems: Which control most directly establishes the required ba

Security Operations Medium
A library is establishing a secure baseline for newly issued servers. The security lead has approved the baseline scope, but implementation has not begun. Which control most directly establishes the required baseline?
  1. Enable multifactor authentication for administrators.
    Multifactor authentication protects privileged access, but it does not define the server's complete secure configuration baseline.
  2. Deploy a web application firewall before production release.
    A web application firewall protects web traffic, but it does not establish host configuration requirements.
  3. Run static analysis against custom applications.
    Static analysis examines application code, but it does not establish operating-system settings or service configurations.
  4. Document tested secure settings for supported systems. ✓
    A documented, tested set of secure settings directly establishes the approved baseline for supported systems.
The trap
Confuses one access control with establishing a system-wide baseline. Applies an application-development assessment to infrastructure hardening. Selects a perimeter application control instead of defining the baseline.

All 672 Security Operations questions →

Apply least privilege and department-based role: Which control directly meets this objective?

Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations Easy
A municipal office is reviewing whether clerks can access resident records beyond their assigned departments. There is no confirmed compromise, and the security manager wants to reduce harm from authorized insider misuse. Which control directly meets this objective?
  1. Require multifactor authentication for every clerk account.
    Multifactor authentication reduces account takeover but does not limit actions performed by a legitimately authenticated insider.
  2. Segment public-facing systems from internal resident-record networks.
    Segmentation can limit lateral movement but does not directly restrict excessive permissions within resident-record applications.
  3. Apply least privilege and department-based role permissions. ✓
    Least privilege and department-based roles restrict each clerk to records and functions required for assigned duties, directly reducing insider misuse.
  4. Create immutable backups so altered resident records can be restored after an incident.
    Immutable backups support recovery after alteration or deletion but do not prevent an authorized clerk from viewing records.
The trap
Confuses proving identity with restricting an authenticated user’s permissions. Applies a network-boundary control to an authorization problem. Addresses recovery rather than inappropriate access.

All 527 Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations questions →

Publish a security policy stating management’s required: Which control best meets this objective?

Security Program Management and Oversight Easy
A telecommunications provider wants management to declare its organization-wide direction for protecting customer network data. Which control best meets this objective?
  1. Create a firewall rule restricting administrative traffic.
    A firewall rule enforces a specific technical restriction, but it does not communicate management direction across the organization.
  2. Deploy endpoint software that blocks unauthorized configuration changes.
    Endpoint enforcement can support security objectives, but it does not establish management’s formal direction or accountability.
  3. Write a procedure describing how administrators review access logs.
    A procedure provides step-by-step execution details, rather than setting organization-wide management direction or intent.
  4. Publish a security policy stating management’s required protection objectives. ✓
    A policy expresses management direction and establishes broad organizational expectations for protecting customer network data.
The trap
Confuses a technical enforcement mechanism with governance direction. Confuses operational instructions with policy. Treats implementation technology as the governance control.

All 480 Security Program Management and Oversight questions →

Configure role-based access with multifactor: Which control should the firm implement?

Security Architecture Easy
An engineering firm uses a SaaS design platform. The provider manages the application and infrastructure, while the firm must prevent unauthorized employee access to project files. Which control should the firm implement?
  1. Deploy a customer-managed hypervisor around the SaaS application.
    SaaS customers do not normally control the provider's application hosting hypervisor or underlying virtualization layer.
  2. Configure role-based access with multifactor authentication for firm users. ✓
    Customer-configured identity and authorization controls directly restrict SaaS project-file access by authorized business roles.
  3. Require the provider to patch its physical database servers weekly.
    The provider owns and operates the SaaS infrastructure, including server patching and maintenance activities.
  4. Build a separate network perimeter around the provider's application.
    A customer cannot usually place a traditional network perimeter around a provider-operated SaaS application.
The trap
Applies an IaaS infrastructure control to a SaaS service. Mistakes provider infrastructure maintenance for the firm's direct access-control duty. Assumes SaaS customers control the service's hosting network boundary.

All 432 Security Architecture questions →

Issue a charter assigning risk acceptance authority: Which control is managerial?

General Security Concepts Medium
A construction business has completed a preliminary risk inventory. Senior leadership now needs a control that establishes who may accept risks and approve treatment decisions. Which control is managerial?
  1. Use a daily checklist for site supervisors
    A supervisor checklist is an operational control because personnel use it to perform recurring work consistently.
  2. Install locks on temporary equipment cabinets
    Cabinet locks are physical controls because they restrict direct access to equipment through a facility mechanism.
  3. Issue a charter assigning risk acceptance authority ✓
    A leadership-approved charter is managerial because it establishes governance, accountability, and authority for risk decisions.
  4. Deploy multifactor authentication for project portals
    Multifactor authentication is a technical control that verifies users through technology before granting portal access.
The trap
Confuses an access-enforcement mechanism with organizational governance. Confuses procedural execution with management oversight. Confuses physical protection with managerial direction.

All 287 General Security Concepts questions →

Deploy the tested hardened image through change control: Which action best satisfies the deployment objective?

Security Operations Medium
An engineering firm has validated a hardened server image in its test environment. The change board approved production deployment, and no production changes have yet occurred. Which action best satisfies the deployment objective?
  1. Scan production servers for application vulnerabilities first.
    Vulnerability scanning provides evidence, but it does not deploy the already tested configuration.
  2. Require developers to review every operating-system setting.
    Developer review may add insight, but it is not a controlled mechanism for deploying an approved server baseline.
  3. Place a web application firewall in front of each server.
    A web application firewall filters application traffic, but it does not deploy host hardening settings.
  4. Deploy the tested hardened image through change control. ✓
    Deploying the validated image through approved change control moves the tested baseline into production safely.
The trap
Confuses verification with the requested deployment action. Substitutes informal review for authorized configuration deployment. Uses a compensating application control for an infrastructure deployment need.

All 672 Security Operations questions →

Use threat intelligence to prioritize targeted defensive: Which control most directly supports that objective?

Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations Medium
A telecommunications provider handles sensitive infrastructure plans and has observed carefully timed reconnaissance from several external addresses. The security team has not proven the actor's identity, but leadership wants to reduce exposure to a well-resourced espionage campaign. Which control most directly supports that objective?
  1. Replace all employee passwords every thirty days.
    Frequent password changes do not specifically detect espionage and may create weak reuse or predictable password behaviors.
  2. Use threat intelligence to prioritize targeted defensive monitoring. ✓
    Threat intelligence helps identify relevant nation-state patterns and focus monitoring on likely espionage techniques and targets.
  3. Require annual security awareness training for all employees.
    Awareness training can reduce user-driven attacks, but it is less direct against persistent, resourceful external espionage.
  4. Install additional badge readers at telecommunications facilities.
    Badge readers strengthen physical access control, but the described exposure involves external reconnaissance of sensitive information.
The trap
It treats a sophisticated campaign primarily as a routine user-awareness problem. It assumes routine password rotation is the primary defense against every advanced actor. It selects a physical control without evidence that facility entry is the attack path.

All 527 Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations questions →

Define a security standard specifying approved storage: Which document should make those details mandatory?

Security Program Management and Oversight Easy
A research laboratory requires every project team to use the same minimum encryption strength and approved storage locations. Which document should make those details mandatory?
  1. Create a recovery procedure for restoring encrypted laboratory files.
    A recovery procedure explains restoration actions, but it does not define organization-wide minimum encryption and storage requirements.
  2. Publish an awareness newsletter describing secure storage preferences.
    An awareness newsletter informs personnel, but preferences do not create mandatory, measurable requirements for project teams.
  3. Define a security standard specifying approved storage and encryption requirements. ✓
    A standard specifies mandatory, consistent details that teams must follow when implementing the laboratory’s security policy.
  4. Ask each project lead to document locally preferred encryption settings.
    Locally selected preferences permit inconsistency and do not establish one mandatory baseline across the laboratory.
The trap
Confuses communication or advice with mandatory security detail. Confuses operational recovery steps with mandatory configuration requirements. Assumes decentralized preferences create an enforceable organizational requirement.

All 480 Security Program Management and Oversight questions →

Security+ exam: the facts

How many questions are on the Security+ exam?

90, as published by the exam vendor.

How long is the Security+ exam?

90 minutes. Across 90 questions that is about 60 seconds per question.

What topics does the Security+ exam cover?

5 domains: Security Operations, Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations, Security Program Management and Oversight, Security Architecture, General Security Concepts. Weights: Security Operations 28%, Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations 22%, Security Program Management and Oversight 20%, Security Architecture 18%, General Security Concepts 12%.

How many Security+ practice test questions does Certsqill have?

2398, spread across 5 exam domains. Every one shows all options, which is correct, and why each of the others is not.

What a good Security Plus practice test should do

A practice test is only worth your time if it tells you something you can act on. CompTIA describes SY0-701 as a maximum of 90 questions in 90 minutes, a mix of multiple-choice and performance-based questions, with a passing score of 750 on a scale of 100 to 900. Good practice reflects all of that, not just recall of definitions.

It should also follow CompTIA’s weighting. A CompTIA Security Plus practice test that spends a third of its questions on general concepts is preparing you for a different exam:

CompTIA Security Plus exam questions: real items vs. practice

A search for CompTIA Security Plus exam questions usually means one of two things: the live items, which CompTIA keeps confidential, or practice questions written against the same objectives. CompTIA’s Candidate Agreement states that any disclosure of the contents of a CompTIA certification exam is strictly prohibited, so only the second kind is legitimate.

That makes the quality of the explanation the thing to judge. Security Plus test questions you practise with should tell you why the right answer is right and why each distractor is wrong, because on a scaled score the margin usually sits in the options that looked plausible.

Security Plus performance based questions and PBQ practice

CompTIA states that the exam mixes multiple-choice and performance-based questions, but it does not publish how many of the up to 90 items are performance-based. Plan for them rather than hoping for a light share.

Security Plus PBQ practice is different from answering multiple choice: you are working through a task, so time matters. When you take a full practice run, leave room for the slower items, and review them by domain afterwards rather than only counting right and wrong.

SY0-701 practice test or V8?

A SY0-701 practice test is the right tool if you sit the current exam. CompTIA expects Security+ V8, exam SY0-801, on or around 17 November 2026, and SY0-701 retires for English on 11 June 2027 (13 August 2027 for Japanese, Portuguese, Spanish and Thai).

The domains carry different weights in V8: general security concepts 16%, threats, vulnerabilities and attacks 24%, security architecture 19%, security operations 27%, and security program management and oversight 14%. A Security Plus 701 practice test will not reflect that shift, so match your practice to the exam code on your voucher.

Free Security Plus practice test: how to use it

A free Security Plus practice test is the cheapest way to find your weakest domain before you spend money on anything else. If you want a CompTIA Security Plus practice test free of charge, start with the free Security+ practice test on Certsqill and read the explanation for every option you missed, not only the ones you guessed.

CompTIA also sells its own CertMaster Practice, which it describes as “timed practice exams, objective quizzes, exam objective mastery scores”. It is available on its own or in bundles with an exam voucher.

Why SY0-701 dumps are not a shortcut

Sites selling SY0-701 exam dumps claim to offer real exam content. CompTIA’s Candidate Agreement names “braindumps” and leaked exam content explicitly and treats using brain dump material as seeking unauthorised access to exam materials. The consequences it lists include revocation of the certification, revocation of other CompTIA certifications, and a permanent ban from the programme for repeat violators.

There is a practical problem too: you cannot know whether a Security Plus exam dump has the right answers, and a Security Plus test dump built for SY0-701 tells you nothing about V8. Time spent on dumps is time not spent on the domains you will actually be scored on.

Building practice into your CompTIA security exam schedule

You book the exam through your CompTIA Central account, which hands you over to Pearson VUE to choose a test centre or online delivery through OnVUE, a language, a date and a time. Since you pick the slot yourself, let your practice results decide when.

A sensible order: study the weakest domain first, then take a timed CompTIA security practice exam under real conditions — 90 minutes, no notes — and book once every domain is consistently safe rather than once the average looks fine.

Practice questions or a CompTIA security boot camp?

A boot camp compresses teaching into a few days; practice questions measure whether the teaching stuck. CompTIA itself notes that classroom training costs “can range from a few hundred to several thousand dollars”, so check before you pay that the course is built for the exam code you will sit, covers all five domains, and includes practice with explanations rather than only lectures.

Either way, practice is the step that tells you whether you are ready to book.

Security Plus practice questions on Certsqill

Certsqill’s CompTIA security questions for Security+ are expert-developed and written against CompTIA’s published objectives. Every one of our CompTIA Security Plus questions shows an explanation for each answer option, and the readiness score breaks your results down by exam domain, so you know what to study next. A 7-day money-back guarantee applies.

Security+ practice: questions people ask

How many questions are on the Security Plus exam?

A maximum of 90, mixing multiple-choice and performance-based questions, in 90 minutes. Source: CompTIA Security+ V7 page, checked 9 October 2026.

How many questions on Security Plus exam day are performance-based?

CompTIA does not publish the split. It states only that the maximum of 90 questions is a mix of multiple-choice and performance-based items, checked 9 October 2026.

Are Security Plus dumps allowed?

No. CompTIA’s Candidate Agreement names braindumps and leaked exam content and lists consequences up to revoking certifications. Source: CompTIA Candidate Agreement, checked 9 October 2026.

What score on a Security Plus certification practice test means I am ready?

No practice percentage converts into CompTIA’s score, because 750 sits on a scaled range of 100 to 900. Look instead for consistent results in every domain, especially security operations, which carries 28% of SY0-701.

Is one Security Plus certification practice exam enough?

One run shows where you stand on that day. Take it, study the weakest domain, then retest with different questions; a stable result across several runs tells you more than a single good score.

Are Security Plus practice questions for SY0-701 still useful after V8 launches?

Yes, if you sit SY0-701 before it retires on 11 June 2027 (English). For SY0-801 the domain weights change, so practise against the version on your voucher. Source: CompTIA, checked 9 October 2026.

Security+ in detail

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Certsqill Security+ question bank · 2398 questions across 5 domains · Every answer, right and wrong, comes with its own explanation.